I am not a lawyer, but my limited understanding of the constitution requires that in order for parliament to limit a right, the government must meet two conditions to satisfy the test: 1 there must be a real issue at question, and 2 limiting the right in question must be reasonably seen to have an impact on the issue.
So, limiting my rights because criminals do crimes seems to beg the question: what chance does the OIC have of impacting criminal use of illegal firearms?
You don't have a right to own a firearm, so everything after "I am not a lawyer" doesn't really have any meaning. Sorry.
I still don't get it. So what? What if they don't have anything? What if they do? Do we honestly think this thing is going to be turned around based on what the government can or can't show us? Serious question. Will anything come of this or is it basically posturing on our behalf?
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So basically if the government does not respond within the 30 days as per their reasons to the gun ban, the OIC get's automatically reversed?
So basically if the government does not respond within the 30 days as per their reasons to the gun ban, the OIC get's automatically reversed?
Not sure how this works exactly and I'm not very good with lawyer stuff, but common sense would dictate that if someone on taxpayers dime (all politicians) can't provide a good reason for their actions in a court of law, then those actions should then be declared a waste of resources and subsequently neutralized?
Wow, that’s a pretty significant win!!! If their is proof that there is no proof, the conservatives are gonna have a field day with that during the next election!!’
That’s why we ignore the amnesty we keep our firearms and tell the turd to jam it up is ass. It’s really pretty simple people if they can’t find the guns how the hell can they take them