To anyone who thinks firearms ownership is a 'God-given human right', try putting a pintle-mounted machine gun in the back of your pickup truck. Then tell the judge that property ownership, including firearms ownership, is a God-given human right that the government has no right to infringe, so the machine gun is completely legal despite anything the Criminal Code or Firearms Act might say. See how far that gets you.
Oh, and by all means tell the Parole Board the same thing at your hearing to encourage them to release you earlier.
I have read the English Bill of Rights of 1689. A very nice document. I personally quite like the section saying that it is the right of all free-born Englishmen to possess arms.
Unfortunately, when all is said and done, it's nothing more than an Act of Parliament, passed in a country where Parliament is supreme. What one Parliament enacts, a subsequent one has the power to repeal, override or simply ignore.
For those who disagree, please explain how it is that
in England, where the
English Bill of Rights of 1689 originates and presumably should have more direct power than in Canada, private firearms ownership has virtually disappeared? Obviously, nobody in England seriously considers it to have any significant legal effect.
I think the problem is that people here see 'Bill of Rights', and equate the power and significance of the document with that of the American Bill of Rights. Especially since many of the concepts in the American Bill of Rights - including the 'right to keep and bear arms' - seem to have been drawn directly from the earlier English document.
The difference is that the American Bill of Rights is one of the founding documents of the American state. And as part of the foundation law of the country, it takes precedence over any laws that might later be passed by the governments which owe their very existence, powers and legitimacy directly to that foundation law. And fortunately for American firearm owners, one of the rights embedded in that foundation law is the right to own arms.
The title 'Bill of Rights' has no special magic. The 'special magic' for Americans is the location of that Bill of Rights as part of their country's original Constitution. By contrast, neither the English Bill of Rights of 1689 nor the Canadian Bill of Rights passed by the Diefenbaker government have any such significance.
Two final points:
1. Right of Property - There isn't a government anywhere in the world that does not hold the general power to expropriate property if the general good requires it. There are usually laws setting out the necessity to pay fair compensation, but ownership of private property is neither sacrosanct nor inviolate even in the USA.
2. Right of Self Defence - The right to protect one's own life and those of one's family is arguably a universal human right. The question that we face is: how exactly do you make the jump from a general right of self defence to a specific 'inborn' or 'God-given' right to own firearms?
The one is a general right to take reasonable actions in dangerous circumstances to preserve one's own life - even if that requires one eventually to deprive a wrongdoer of his. The other is the ability to possess a specific type of physical tool or weapon.
Are the two necessarily congruent?