new belt fed coming so now rpd????

So.. in the "firearm in service prior to 1945" and the "belts being manufactured after 1945" (Aka. reproduction and "stamping date" on belts)..

then how come MG34-MG42 belts which are "post-war mfg" are legal..

http://www.marstar.ca/dynamic/product.jsp?productid=78627


Because it doesn't matter when the belts were made, as long as they were made for the military, for that firearm.

"(f) is of the “belt” type consisting of a fabric or metal belt, is not a reproduction and was originally designed or manufactured for the purpose of feeding cartridges into a automatic firearm of a type that was in existence before 1945."

CC Regulations Prescribing Certain Firearms and other Weapons, Components and Parts of Weapons, Accessories, Cartridge Magazines, Ammunition and Projectiles as Prohibited or Restricted

Part 4 3. (1.) (f)

http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/sor-98-462/fulltext.html
 
Because it doesn't matter when the belts were made, as long as they were made for the military, for that firearm.

That's your interpretation. I have never seen any official interpretation of the word reproduction in this context. Any words when not defined specifically by the legislation carry their plain dictionary meaning.
 
That's your interpretation. I have never seen any official interpretation of the word reproduction in this context. Any words when not defined specifically by the legislation carry their plain dictionary meaning.

Then read the whole section. Non reproduction belts for gun types designed before 45.

Authentic belts, not reproductions.

So original manufacture.
 
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