Lethal force means DEADLY or "sufficient to cause death" FORCE! If it is now legal to kill somebody solely to protect property then I stand corrected. I must have just imagined the Maurice and Khill trials. My bad...
I know what lethal force means. Yes it is now legal to kill someone solely to protect property, but killing them must be reasonable under the circumstances.
Since 2013 neither the laws for defense of the person or defense of property contain any reference to lethal, deadly, or any other such degree of force.
The thing you have to remember is that under no circumstances can a legal property owner be compelled to forfeit his possession or right of ownership over something to a criminal. A property owner is allowed to use force prevent property from being stolen, and to recover it after its been stolen. The only limit in law to what such a use of force can be is that which is reasonable.
If the thief is so committed to the crime that the only way to prevent the theft is over the thief's dead body, regardless of whether the thief ever posses a direct threat to the property owner or not, then clearly over the thief's dead body becomes reasonable.
If the property owner is reluctant to kill someone for the sake of the property, than that is between the property owner and his own conscience, and not for a judge or jury or any of us to decide. The law thankfully is quite clear. The only thing that can be in dispute, on a case by case basis, are the facts. Which is basically what trials are for.
You definitely imagined the Maurice trial. Charges were dropped before it got that far.
Maybe you fell asleep when they were discussing the facts during the Khill trial, because that case was settled as a defense of the person trial, not defense of property.
I accept your apology.